Why does Rothbard oppose government sale of public property in formerly communist countries?
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Why does Rothbard oppose government sale of “public” property in formerly communist countries?
Started by Murphy, Sep 10 2005 08:00 PM
1 reply to this topic
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Posted 08 November 2008 - 08:48 PM
First off, the government is the original thief. Why should the thief get the money for selling back to the owners their goods???? But unfortunately, many of those owners are no longer with us, having been sent to mass graves by the reformers of 1917 and since. In addition, there is no real money in these countries. Most is inflated fiat tissues with little value until a market economy begins to adjust for supply and demand and setting rational prices in voluntary exchanges that have not been done other than black markets for decades. And quite frankly, most of the current property was created since the State took 100% control; there are no real owners yet.
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